A separation of powers in the purest sense is not, and never has been, a feature of the UK constitution.

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“A separation of powers in the purest sense is not, and never has been, a feature of the UK constitution.” (N Parpworth, Constitutional and Administrative Law (10th edn, OUP 2018) 20) Explain and illustrate the doctrine of the separation of powers as it operates in the United Kingdom. To what extent is the above statement accurate? USING OSCOLA REFERENCING

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